I mean, the original Latin version is basically the same as the English translation. And Jerome lived in Jerusalem among native Hebrew speakers when doing his translation in around 400 CE. So, I don't get the comments that it's edited for political purposes. If there's a mistranslation, it goes back to the beginning and has held steady for 1600 years.
Also, not to lose sight of practicalities, if a billion Christians have relied on the "wrong" version over the last 1600 years, doesn't that make the "wrong" version orthodox? The "right" translation at this point is heretical.
By background, no. Current lawyer, Classics major.
But... I am presently defending a Bittorrent copyright infringement case and negotiated a software license agreement a few weeks ago.