this post was submitted on 30 Oct 2024
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And Finally...

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[–] bizarroland@fedia.io 5 points 3 weeks ago (1 children)

It's an interesting formula. Exponential and logarithmic I think?

I'm not a super great at math terms person

14k first week 42k the second 98k the third 210k 434k 882k 1778k...

[–] FundMECFSResearch@lemmy.blahaj.zone 3 points 3 weeks ago* (last edited 3 weeks ago) (2 children)

EDIT: I’m stupid and did it with the fine squaring every week instead of doubling and I’m too lazy to recalculate so ignore this

w~1~ = (100’000 x 7)^2^

w~2~ = (100’000 x 7 + w~1~)^2^

w~n~ = (100’000 x 7 + w~n-1~)^2^

It looks like it’s impossible to find a true function for w~n~ that depens only on n.

But we can approximate it with:

w_n = C^(2^n) 

where C is the money owed at the end of the first week.

So the approximate formula for how much is owned at the end of the nth week is.

w_n = (4.9 * 10^11)^(2^(n-1))

where n is the number of weeks since the fine was issued.

In truth w~n~ will be larger than said number but it’s a decent lower bounds for approximation and it should be accurate to within around a couple percent.

i did this calculation in rubles but you can just replace 100’000 by 1000 if you wish USD.

[–] Emperor 2 points 3 weeks ago

They did the math.

[–] Successful_Try543@feddit.org 2 points 3 weeks ago* (last edited 3 weeks ago) (1 children)

Shouldn't it be

w_n = 7 c + 2 w_{n-1}

Twice the fine from last week plus c=100000 rubles for each of the seven dow. According to Wolfram alpha this refines to

w(n) = 7 c · (2^n - 1)

Anyways, it's a funny formula.

[–] FundMECFSResearch@lemmy.blahaj.zone 3 points 3 weeks ago (1 children)

you’re completely right just see the edit I made at the top of my comment

[–] Successful_Try543@feddit.org 2 points 3 weeks ago

Ah. I first didn't really understand the edit, but now I get it.