this post was submitted on 18 Aug 2023
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chapotraphouse

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I've seen too much of this. No, the nazis and the Soviets were not equivalent.

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[–] intensely_human@lemm.ee 0 points 1 year ago (1 children)

We have droughts in other places without it leading to famines.

It’s like the question of why New Orleans got flooded in 2005. Did New Orleans get flooded because there was a category 5 hurricane, or because government corruption led to being poorly prepared for the category 5 hurricane?

The way I personally see it is that government ineptitude led to New Orleans being flooded by a predictable event.

In the same way I think the disenfranchisement of the kulaks in Ukraine led to the famine. And it’s not some fringe theory. Many respectable bodies consider the Holodomor to be a genocide.

And the basic fact stands that many countries have experienced a drought without it resulting in mass starvation.

Another analogy would be a person driving without their seatbelt on. You could say that it was the head-on collision with the tree that killed the driver, or you could say it was the decision not to wear a seatbelt that killed the driver.

I think the Soviet government destroyed any chance of a skilled response to that drought, by killing or imprisoning all the skilled farmers in that region, because they chose to equate financial success with unfair exploitation rather than skill. They ignored the fact that success can be evidence of competence, and in doing so doomed the society to famine by punishing all the successful people.

[–] booty@hexbear.net 2 points 1 year ago

the disenfranchisement of the kulaks in Ukraine led to the famine

i wish any of the groups liberals think have been oppressed by communists actually were