this post was submitted on 12 Jan 2024
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Asklemmy

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I'm politically agnostic and have moved from a slightly conservative stance to a vastly more progressive stance (european). i still dont get the more niche things like tankies and anarchists at this point but I would like to, without spending 10 hours reading endless manifests (which do have merit, no doubt, but still).

Can someone explain to me why anarchy isnt the guy (or gal, or gang, or entity) with the bigger stick making the rules?

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[โ€“] CrimeDad@lemmy.crimedad.work 2 points 10 months ago (1 children)

For most of the history of capitalism, and in many cases still to this day, organized labor and various labor actions have been illegal, but it still happens.

[โ€“] GBU_28@lemm.ee 1 points 10 months ago (1 children)

True, but what organized labor does exist is supported by, and validated by government.

[โ€“] CrimeDad@lemmy.crimedad.work 1 points 10 months ago (1 children)

No. Organized labor exists in spite of the government. For example, in the US, sympathy strikes are illegal. Many jurisdictions have so called right-to-work laws which weaken unions. A union is its members, not the laws to which it's subjugated.

[โ€“] GBU_28@lemm.ee 1 points 10 months ago* (last edited 10 months ago)

Lol sure. Any examples of organized labor existing in the absence of government, where that group themselves does not become the enforcing, power projecting government?

What you're describing are the symptoms of imperfect government.

The absence of government is a power vacuum that will be filled. Things like labor organization require structure, and if they have to do not have it, if they persist, they become government. (Enforcement, power projection, etc.)