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Can the act of assigning a score to someone constitute a decision? (verfassungsblog.de)

submitted 11 months ago by kpw@kbin.social to c/europe@feddit.de

3 comments fedilink hide all child comments

This, in essence, is the question the Court of Justice of the European Union (CJEU) had to answer in Case C-634/21. And the Court’s answer is yes, following in the footsteps of the Advocate General’s opinion on the case. Rendered on 7 December, this ruling was eagerly awaited as it was the first time the Court had the opportunity to interpret the notorious Article 22 of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) prohibiting decisions “based solely on automated processing

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[–] dpunked@feddit.de 8 points 11 months ago (2 children)

I wonder how this might impact applications for jobs. I assume often an automatic score is generated and if there is a company performing the screening for the hiring entity, this decision could be subject to this ruling

[–] tryptaminev@feddit.de 8 points 11 months ago

As it should. This is one of the examples were GDPR meets antidiscrimination laws.

[–] maynarkh@feddit.nl 2 points 11 months ago

I assumed that's already the case.