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Since Pi is infinite and non-repeating, would that mean any finite sequence of non-repeating numbers should appear somewhere in Pi? (lemmy.dbzer0.com)

submitted 2 days ago* (last edited 2 days ago) by Melatonin@lemmy.dbzer0.com to c/asklemmy@lemmy.ml

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How about ANY FINITE SEQUENCE AT ALL?

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[–] putoelquelolea@lemmy.ml 3 points 22 hours ago (1 children)

My guess would be that - depending on the number of digits you are looking for in the sequence - you could calculate the probability of finding any given group of those digits.

For example, there is a 100% probability of finding any group of two, three or four digits, but that probability decreases as you approach one hundred thousand digits.

Of course, the difficulty in proving this hypothesis rests on the computing power needed to prove it empirically and the number of digits of Pi available. That is, a million digits of Pi is a small number if you are looking for a ten thousand digit sequence

[–] Melatonin@lemmy.dbzer0.com 2 points 22 hours ago (1 children)

But surely given infinity, there is no problem finding a number of ANY length. It's there, somewhere, eventually, given that nothing repeats, the number is NORMAL, as people have said, and infinite.

The probability is 100% for any number, no matter how large, isn't it?

Smart people?

[–] putoelquelolea@lemmy.ml 1 points 19 hours ago

In theory, sure. In practice, are we really going to find a series of ten thousand ones? I would also like to hear more opinions from smart people