this post was submitted on 12 Oct 2024
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[–] Cowbee@lemmy.ml 12 points 2 months ago (1 children)

Socialism with Chinese Characteristics is Marxism-Leninism applied to the PRC's present productive forces and material conditions. They have not reached Communism, but they are firmly on their way to full socialization of the economy. The only way you could think they have abandoned Communism as a goal is if you have never read Marx, Engels, or Lenin, and therefore have never studied Historical Materialism.

The reason it's painfully obvious that you haven't studied Historical Materialism is because you clearly believe Communism is something that develops through decree, not degree, that the goal of Communism is to immediately socialize all production. This is absurd, and Utopian. Marx believed Socialism to come after Capitalism because Capitalism turns itself into a status ripe for socialism as markets coalesce into few monopolist syndicates, ripe for central planning. If the productive forces aren't ready, then Communism can't be achieved without struggles.

In Question 17 of The Principles of Communism, Engels makes this clear:

Will it be possible for private property to be abolished at one stroke?

No, no more than existing forces of production can at one stroke be multiplied to the extent necessary for the creation of a communal society.

In all probability, the proletarian revolution will transform existing society gradually and will be able to abolish private property only when the means of production are available in sufficient quantity.

What happened in China, is that Mao tried to jump to Communism before the productive forces had naturally socialized themselves, which led to unstable growth and recessions. Deng stepped in and created a Socialist Market Economy by luring in foreign Capital, which both smoothed economic growth and eliminated recessions. This was not an abandonment of Communism, but a return to Marxism from Ultraleft Maoism.

Today, China has over 50% of the economy in the public sector. About a 10th of the economy is in the cooperative sector, and the rest is private. The majority of the economy is centrally planned and publicly owned! Do you call the US Socialist because of the Post Office? Absurd.

Moreover, the private sector is centrally planned in a birdcage model, Capital runs by the CPC's rules. As the markets give way to said monopolist syndicates, the CPC increases control and ownership, folding them into the public sector. This is how Marx envisioned Communism to be established in the first place! Via a DotP, and by degree, not decree! The role of the DotP is to wrest Capital as it socializes and centrally plan it, not to establish Communism through fiat.

Read Socialism Developed China, Not Capitalism, and read Marx himself before you act like an authority without even understanding Historical Materialism.

[–] prole@lemmy.blahaj.zone 1 points 2 months ago (2 children)

Marx believed Socialism to come after Capitalism because Capitalism turns itself into a status ripe for socialism as markets coalesce into few monopolist syndicates, ripe for central planning.

I'm sure I'm way out of my depth here, and it's been over a decade since I studied this stuff in school... But this seems incredibly naive? As we're seeing now, that environment is far more ripe for fascism, or some type of neo-feudalism.

[–] i_c_b_m@lemmygrad.ml 9 points 2 months ago

The starting point for the Marxian analysis centers on the existing dominant forces of monopolistic industrial capitalism. Therefore socialist revolution still must move through capitalism by process of subordinating the ruling class to a proletarian state. As Cowbee pointed out, fascism is not a state absent capitalism, but rather mode of capitalism itself. Because of the inherent contradictions, we assume that any capitalist system already produces various quantities of fascism as a mechanism for maintaining superiority of the owner class.

[–] Cowbee@lemmy.ml 9 points 2 months ago* (last edited 2 months ago)

I'm dramatically simplifying things for the sake of a Lemmy comment.

First, fascism is just Capitalism in decline, it isn't meaningfully separate from Capitalism itself.

Secondly, when I say that Marx believed Socialism to come after Capitalism because of Capitalism's mechanisms working towards monopolist syndicates ripe for planning, that doesn't mean Marx wasn't also revolutionary. Such central planning and socialism can't take place without revolution, because the proletariat needs to gain supremacy over Capital, which is impossible electorally.

Does that clear it up?