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Article 1, Section 8, Clause 12:
That "no appropriation... for a longer term than two years" part was intended to prevent the establishment of a permanent standing army.
You can also tell that they really meant it because of the contrast with the next clause...
...which pointedly does not contain any such limitation.
(Also, the real point of the Second Amendment was that the militia -- i.e. all able-bodied male citizens between age 17 and 45-- should be "well regulated" (which at the time meant "well-trained") and thus prepared to defend the security of the United States themselves. In other words, it was further reinforcement of the idea not to have a permanent professional army.)
What about Clause 14, though?
To make rules for Government and Regulation of the LAND and naval forces
Or is that just relating to, what I’m understanding as, when the government calls for the militia to “stand”? As in Clause 16.
I mean clause 12 does give Congress the power to raise a real army, it's just that it's not supposed to stick around for more than two years at a time. In other words, it's supposed to be a temporary thing during wartime and then go away afterward.
There's no conflict with clause 14 because it's about Congress' power to govern and regulate the army during that two-year (or less) period while it's raised (as well as to govern and regulate the navy all the time).
Seems to me like Clause 14 might not apply to the militia mainly because Clause 16 would cover it more specifically (e.g. delineating the separation of governance between militia under state control vs. militia under Federal control).