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It's only impossible to people who believe that everything can be fit into a one dimensional political spectrum.
China clearly is more fascist than communist these days (no matter what they call themselves) but at what point did it cease to be communist and become fascist?
Seems to me both communism and fascism are both authoritarian they just rationalize it in different ways. China has had a continuous authoritarian regime for many decades, but previously it was rationalized as being needed to bring equality. But now there's capitalism and billionaires in China (but no labour unions) so the rationalization for authoritarianism has shifted to needing a strongman to protect China from foreigners. Same government, just a shift in rationalizations.
Seems to me you should read more. All these words have definitions even though it may not seem that way to you…
So what form of government does China have given there's capitalism, billionaires, no labour unions, an authoritarian government that oppresses minorities and a whole lot of xenophobia in the rhetoric of their leaders? What do your definitions say about a government like that?
I didn’t say I was going to teach the class, I said you should educate yourself. But you seem to enjoy the folly of ignorance.
You wrote a lot of words when you could've just wrote one. Maybe you'd have an answer and if you spent more time educating yourself and less time trying to come off as smarter than everyone else while saying nothing.