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EXCLUSIVE: Lord Cameron under pressure to release £2.34bn funds from Chelsea sale
(www.telegraph.co.uk)
this post was submitted on 27 Nov 2023
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Can someone explain this in simpler terms
The owner of Chelsea was Russian. Russia was sanctioned. The owner was forced to sell. The government withheld the money owed to the Russian owner as part of the sanctions. The money was promised to Ukrainian war victims. They appear to still be withholding it either out of bureaucratic incompetence or a greed for the interest generated from it.
Why does the British government get to keep all the money? Did he use British loans to buy the team and they’re collecting on it?