this post was submitted on 24 May 2024
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[–] lauha@lemmy.one 7 points 6 months ago (2 children)

Pretty sure Jesus didn't speak english though. Some people in bible belt might disagree.

[–] WholeEnchilada@lemmy.today 2 points 6 months ago (1 children)

He spoke all the languages! Amen. Praise the lawdy lawdy. Lmao

[–] RizzRustbolt@lemmy.world 2 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago) (1 children)

No. He spoke American.

Specifically, Southern Baptist American.

[–] WholeEnchilada@lemmy.today 1 points 6 months ago

Hahahaha! I saw (or in southern baptist i think to be correct i seen) this movie on the amazon prime all about how he got born again into other babies in the Mexico. Ripped out that baby's eyes they kept on doing. Who knows? Might be a true story. We're all here praising the lawdy lawdy wasting our time. At least i got crackers and pimiento cheese and a porch to sit on.

[–] boonhet@lemm.ee 2 points 6 months ago (1 children)

I of course don't speak ancient languages, but I believe pronouns existed 2000 years ago too.

[–] lauha@lemmy.one 1 points 6 months ago (1 children)

Yes, but some languages can drop the pronoun in favor of some other linguistic construct. For example in finnish 'I am driving" can be said "minä ajan" but "minä"(I) can be dropped completely to just "ajan" because base word for driving is "ajaa" and when I am doing it, it is inflected to "ajan"

[–] boonhet@lemm.ee 2 points 6 months ago (1 children)

That's also true of Estonian and Spanish, but in the case of "I am he", you'd shorten away the actor, but not the target of the action, so you'd keep one pronoun still at least.

[–] lauha@lemmy.one 1 points 6 months ago (1 children)

Also the whole theoretical discussion is pointless because we probably have a guess of jesus' native language and knowledge of pronoun system in it

[–] BluesF@lemmy.world 1 points 6 months ago

Aramaic, maybe also Hebrew. Both have pronouns.